Replace one value in a 2 variable's function

Hello. When we have a function of 2 variables is it possible to replace only one of them with a value (so after that it is a function of 1 variable). I want to do this without symbolic functions . for example input @(x,a)(..)=f then with 'for' loop the a changes every time so I want to write sth like feval(f,a-only) and f=@(x) and solve the equation with f(x) (newtons method but its not that matters)
I cant understand how I can say that i replace only a.

Answers (1)

g=@(x)f(x,a)
Then work with g.
Best wishes
Torsten.

3 Comments

Thank you. But there is no need of feval(f,a)? or sth like that? to define that its the same but replaces the a?
No.
Best wishes
Torsten.
thank you very much!

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Asked:

on 4 Apr 2016

Commented:

on 4 Apr 2016

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